Posted by RealMe on September 29, 2007, at 16:52:04
What would you think of a therapist who worked with someone who had been abused as a child and then later as a teenager too so that the girl was having sex with lots of men by the time she was age 17 and even getting paid for it. Would you think a T should say to her that when she was a teenager, she was "servicing men." Would you think that was blaming her for her abuse. I think so. In my opinion it seems like the T is saying the patient caused the abuse to happen to her (at least the abuse when she was a teenager). Why wouldn't the therapist consider what happened to her as being used by men?? I find this way of thinking by a male therapist to be rather disturbing. I wonder what others think.
RealME
poster:RealMe
thread:785938
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/psycho/20070929/msgs/785938.html