Posted by Scott L. Schofield on November 17, 1999, at 11:42:07
I often see buspirone (Buspar) described as being a "partial" agonist at 5-HT1a receptor sites.
1. What does "partial" mean?
(pre-synaptic vs post-synaptic?)2. As an agonist, wouldn't it work against the antagonist activity of pindolol?
Thanks.Scott
poster:Scott L. Schofield
thread:15384
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/19991108/msgs/15384.html