Posted by messadivoce on January 16, 2005, at 15:34:19
This is a branch-off of my thread above, but I think it's easier to address this issue in a seperate thread. I am currently engaged in what I believe to be a semantics battle with my former T. The following is a direct quote from an e-mail he recently sent me:
"The professional guidelines are quite clear that communication cannot occur in the context of a social relationship, especially within the first two years following termination, and many believe this should never happen. Beyond this, common sense and personal judgment have to be relied upon, both of which are imperfect. "
Okay guys, is this true? I know of the 2 year rule that states that no SEXUAL relationship can occur before the 2 year mark (not even a CONSIDERATION in this situation!).
BTW, I haven't been interested in a "social" relationship with the former T in question, but he's drastically changed his tune about what is acceptable for communication, and now it seems he's trying to apply a rule that doesn't even relate. Unless there is another more specific set of rules that he is under that I don't know about. He is under supervision right now (postdoc) but I have no idea what "professional guidelines" he's referring to.
I am only talking in terms of Ph.D or Psy.D psychologists here--pdocs, MFTs, M.A. therapists and anyone else may have other rules. I don't know. But has anyone ever discussed this 2-year rule thing with their psychologist, and am I right that it's only referring to a sexual relationship, and that everything else is open to interpretation?
I'm not trying to "convince" him to change his mind, but I do want to know if he's using this APA rule as his defense, (however lame it may be) or if he's too chicken to just say "I believe such and such; this is my personal guideline." I know I could respect an "I" statement coming from him!
poster:messadivoce
thread:442829
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/psycho/20050111/msgs/442829.html