Posted by Racer on January 22, 2008, at 2:03:05
It used to be, losing candidates received partial reimbursements of their campaign expenditures if they received a high enough percentage of the popular vote. I haven't looked into this in a long time, but I wonder if it's still true. Does anyone know?
Yes, as a matter of fact it does have something to do with how I plan to vote in the primary...
Thanks.
poster:Racer
thread:808277
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/poli/20070708/msgs/808277.html