Posted by CareBear04 on January 19, 2008, at 11:28:48
Hi everyone-- just something I have been confused about. The way I understood it, an ED requires both actual actions/inactions like restricting or bingeing, plus the intent of controlling weight driving those actions. Under this definition, not eating well due to depression or anxiety wouldn't by itself qualify. A couple of months ago, though, my pdoc said an ED is determined based on the objective symptoms. We were sort of in the middle of a heated exchange, so I didn't ask him about the need for the subjective component.
What are your thoughts? Do actions without intent count as an ED?
Thanks,
CB
poster:CareBear04
thread:807610
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/eating/20070820/msgs/807610.html