Posted by SLS on January 15, 2019, at 6:20:08
I have seen it written by many that the psychobiology generating the antidepressant responses to SSRIs is the result of the emergence of emotional blunting, numbing, amotivation, and apathy. In the absence of these effects, SSRI drugs would not work to improve depression. I really don't see this happening.
The explanation given for the antidepressant effect of SSRI-induced apathy is that feelings of depression will be diffused simply because you don't give a damn anymore. I don't agree with this. I see emotional blunting, amotivation, and apathy as being nothing more but unwanted side effects. For me, Zoloft caused a great deal of these side effects, even though I also experienced an antidepressant response. Lexapro had almost zero side effects, and I responded to it. I did not respond to Prozac or Paxil. For these two drugs, emotional blunting, amotivation, and apathy were prominent.
With a SSRI, if someone experiences significant emotional blunting, amotivation, and apathy, shouldn't they also experience a robust antidepressant response? If this were true, should we encourage everyone to take Paxil?
If we were to conceive of serotonin reuptake inhibition as always producing emotional blunting, amotivation, and apathy, what happens to these effects when SNRIs (Effexor, Pristiq, Cymbalta? are applied? I have responded better to Effexor and Cymbalta (SNRI) than to Paxil and Prozac (SSRI). I experienced not apathy and amotivation at all with SNRIs.
Question: Of the true SSRIs, which one do you think is the worst for producing emotional blunting, amotivation, and apathy?
- ScottSome see things as they are and ask why.
I dream of things that never were and ask why not.- George Bernard Shaw
poster:SLS
thread:1102788
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20181024/msgs/1102788.html