Posted by Prefect on January 12, 2013, at 10:02:20
If an SSRI seems to have lost its effectiveness on anxiety and panic, would it not logically mean your brain has outsmarted it and reuptake inhibition or receptor downregulation is no longer taking place?
And so does this not mean a really conservative taper process is no longer required, since your brain will not be affected by the reduction in drug levels? And you shouldn't expect a discontinuation syndrome if you don't take 6 months to taper it?
poster:Prefect
thread:1035302
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20130112/msgs/1035302.html