Posted by psychobot5000 on May 15, 2012, at 17:31:19
In reply to Re: Melancholic vs Atypical depression » psychobot5000, posted by SLS on May 11, 2012, at 6:26:42
Thought it worth mentioning the results of my followup research in case any others stumble on this thread. Bipolar V appears to be a speculative and unofficial diagnosis defined by the presence of relatives with bipolar disorder, all of which is fine. However, the rationale for its existence as a category, and for its treatment indications, appears not to be greater efficacy for mood stabilizers, but to avoid bringing out a latent manic phase, as in Bipolar IV. Thus, in someone such as myself, treated with standard antidepressants for many years without mania or hypomania or anything like it, there may not be a rationale for any Bipolar V classification, at least as the disorder is currently thought of (regardless of whether there's some cycling between better and worse unipolar depression, though if schizoid disorders have a similar etiology to bipolar, perhaps it might be worthwhile for a new patient with such relatives to stay aware of possible manias[?]).
Best,
Pb
poster:psychobot5000
thread:1017453
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20120508/msgs/1017974.html