Posted by Christ_empowered on January 20, 2012, at 22:02:49
Is this possible? I read somewhere about "targeted treatment" of schizophrenia, in which the patients take neuroleptics on an as-needed basis. E.Fuller Torrey, not surprisingly, was against it. Then again--I'm against E.Fuller Torrey.
I quit taking the Abilify every day about, I dunno, 4-6 days ago. I feel better. I'm more in touch with some of the psychosocial issues that drove me crazy and kept me crazy. I'm actually less anxious, although that could be improved diet (time to quit being tubby) and an increased dose of niacinamide (6grams+).
I remember in "Mad in America" Whitaker referenced a study in which the authors found that some more-or-less recovered schizophrenics kept Thorazine or whatever around and took it when the symptoms got to them, but were otherwise medication-free. I'd like to get to that point.
I'm kind of concerned that I have tardive psychosis. My first shrink upped the Abilify rapidly for what was probably either psychotic depression or relatively mild psychosis with a mood component. Anyway, I then was on every pill (especially controlled substances) I could get. Now, I'm afraid that part of the problem is that I've been on neuroleptics at an early aged, mixed-and-matched, and now...now what?
For a while, during a drug-free period, I even had tics. I honestly think it was some kind of TD-ish thing, probably from high dose adderall+abilify. They went away after a crack up ("psychotic mania"). Unfortunately, I had to take neuroleptics (Abilify) after that crack up, and I've been on them most of them time for the past 3 years.
Ugh! What do I do?
poster:Christ_empowered
thread:1007922
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20120120/msgs/1007922.html