Posted by SLS on October 19, 2011, at 17:24:19
In reply to Great news!, posted by Christ_empowered on October 19, 2011, at 16:00:41
> Its always best to take 1 antipsychotic at the lowest effective dose instead of 2+ neuroleptics
This is still a topic of debate.
There are studies that agree with your statement here. I am not sure that this is always true, though. I know one person who does well on Risperdal and Seroquel. If you take the Risperdal away, she becomes paranoid and psychotic. If you take away the Seroquel, depression and negative symptoms appear. I guess it is possible that substituting a drug like desipramine for the Seroquel would work, too. The bottom line is that there is not yet sufficient study of this issue to be able to prescribe a monolithic policy.
Each of these neuroleptic drugs differ in the properties they possess. Sometimes, you can't hit all of the necessary targets with one drug because no one drug possess all of the properties that neuroleptics as a group display collectively. Of course, this is all theoretical stuff, but it allows for a rationale for a proof-of-principle in considering polypharmacy as a treatment.
Should using multiple antidepressants be rejected as a viable treatment for MDD?
- Scott
Some see things as they are and ask why.
I dream of things that never were and ask why not.- George Bernard Shaw
poster:SLS
thread:1000212
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20111016/msgs/1000235.html