Posted by mickapoo on February 6, 2009, at 9:55:53
In reply to Re: Nardil vs Parnate anorgasmia, posted by SLS on February 6, 2009, at 5:46:28
So I guess my question is being that I was able to get over the anorgasmia associated with Nardil, is it the same thing causing the anorgasmia in Parnate? I've been on many SSRI's and the anorgasmia never went away.
So the likelihood being that I have returned to normal on Nardil mean that I will probably be able to do the same on Parnate?
I don't know if I'm putting this the right way :)
poster:mickapoo
thread:878355
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20090203/msgs/878448.html