Posted by Fivefires on January 14, 2009, at 20:40:03
My ins dc'd oxycodone. I've been on it a bit more than a couple years; like maybe six(6!?).
I thought the pharmacist spoke of a higher dosage of oxycontin being equivalent to my dosage of oxycodone, 10/650, last night, when I lie frozen in fear at the news I'd need $200 to get my oxycodone. I was just barely able to make quick arrangements w/ pcp and pharmacy. Knew I'd be going into withdrawal midday today. I took a 2mg oxycontin about an hour ago and can feel something working, I think.
Anyway, PCP wrote 2mg oxycontin b.i.d.
You'd like to clobber some of these pharmacists over the head with your purse or broomstick, or rip off your belt and whip 'em, but there is one on the night shift whose straight forward and seems good. I'll give him another call tonight re: his view on equivalency. It seems he didn't say 2mg b.i.d. Seems he said 4, or 40, or 80mg, b.i.d (I really can't remember or even read my handwriting as I was so upset at the whole situation!)
I keep wondering 'won't by body notice the lack of 2600mgs of acetaminophen a day?' I called pcp to ask and staff person said 'there's something in oxycontin to keep this from happening'. Huh? Why didn't I say, 'Like what?' I just said 'Oh. Okay.'. Yes, I'll slap myself on the cheek for ya'! Whoops! Missed it!
Followup very appreciated, 5f
poster:Fivefires
thread:874056
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20090104/msgs/874056.html