Posted by linkadge on July 5, 2006, at 17:17:37
In reply to Re: Correlation vs causality, posted by Klavot on July 5, 2006, at 13:19:15
The idea that SSRIs might actually induce parkonson's is not new.
I would not put it on the same level as SSRI's cause stroke since there is really insufficant evidence to suggest such.I suppose the first pieces of evidence were the observation that SSRI's can cause acute parkinsonian like effects. The SSRI's also often make existing parkinsons disease worse.There are also the animal studies which actually suggest that it is the SSRI itself which is inducing neuroanatomical changes in the regions of the brain controlling movement.
So you've got a study which seems to correlate SSRI use to parkinsons, but when that is coupled with the animal studies says a bit more.
The same thing goes with neuroleptics and TD. Doctors started to observe things, then hypothesis were made, and then animal studies were done to try and retest the hypothesis. I mean sure, you'll get the doctors who still denounce the association, and try and say that schizophrenia itself is a risk factor for TD, but why then do animals given Haldol develop identical symptoms to those observed in humans.
Linkadge
poster:linkadge
thread:662854
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20060701/msgs/664252.html