Posted by Caedmon on April 9, 2006, at 15:25:52
In reply to Re: Drugs versus Psychotherapy - Backlash?, posted by linkadge on April 9, 2006, at 14:46:50
> What I mean was...responce to active drugs goes down as sevarity of depression goes up. But then I already see you disagree.
>
> I would think that is the same with a lot of severe mentall illnesses. Ie severe schizophrenia generally has a poor long term outcome with drugs. Severe bipolar and severe parkinsons generally fare poorly on drugs alone.
Severe schizophrenia and bipolar have a poor prognosis in general. I'm sure that meds + therapy increase remission or response at least to a degree but primary Tx modality in both cases are drugs. Or anyway, ideally is.(Yes, I know they did some work on CBT and schizophrenia. Longitudinal studies show CBT does very poorly for psychosis. Actually, it does poorly for anxiety disorders too, but that's another story.)
I don't understand the Parkinson's reference. Being a progressive, degenerative neurological movement disorder, I don't know why it's included. (Unless you're talking about comorbid depression?) That's like saying that dementia doesn't respond well to drugs long-term. Well, of course not, it doesn't respond well to *anything* long-term.
- C
poster:Caedmon
thread:629584
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20060408/msgs/631015.html