Posted by Glydin on October 15, 2005, at 20:44:52
I'm wondering about the warning of not to consume alcohol while on SSRI's.
Does alcohol potentiate SSRI's or render them ineffective or is it because alcohol is a depressant?
The obvious fact of not mudding the waters by using a substance with a potential for problems is, well, obvious. I'm just wondering if there is a BIG psychopharm rationale - as in a biodynamic interaction - for the warning.
poster:Glydin
thread:567366
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20051010/msgs/567366.html