Posted by ed_uk on December 12, 2004, at 20:47:50
Parenteral diamorphine is widely used in the UK for the treatment of severe pain associated with terminal illness. How do the Americans justify not using diamorphine when they use other potent opioids such as oxycodone, hydromorphone, morphine and fentanyl.
Hey, why am I even asking, since when were drug laws logical!!
Ed.
poster:ed_uk
thread:428569
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20041211/msgs/428569.html