Posted by freedom2001 on October 30, 2002, at 20:11:23
I've been on generic prozac for years and experience no sexual dysfunction.
When I was on anafranil, every 15 mins i would have an OC thought. So it was bad.
When I was on prozac, OC symptoms come and go, but not at 15 min intervals.
Is this considered a partial response?
Does no sexual dysfunction mean a partial response?
And if that is the case, should I switch to a new SSRI or another generic prozac?
poster:freedom2001
thread:125862
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20021025/msgs/125862.html