Posted by Leighwit on May 14, 2002, at 19:32:13
In reply to Re: New Questions=New Diagnosis In Progress=Thanks » Leighwit, posted by JohnX2 on May 14, 2002, at 18:31:22
>
> Lamictal has one of the more notable antidepressant effects
> of the mood stabilizer and is generally good for cycling.Thanks for the info, John. Re your comment about cycling, I've read many Lamictal-related posts that mention cycling. Since I don't have any mania I wouldn't guess I have a cycular condition.
I must admit, however, that the more I read about the bi-polar "spectrum" the more confused I'm getting. I don't for example, understand what people refer to when they use the word hypomania. Is that merely referring to an "extended or exaggerated mood" or is it always an elevated mood? Can one be manic in an irritable or angry sense?
I don't think I have any cycles per se'. I'm irritable (as an adjunct to the depression symptoms of lethargy and disinterested melancholy/hopelessness) and anxious to the point of distraction rather regularly. Some days are worse than others, but I don't see a pattern of episodes.
I've been complaining about it the past year as a side effect of Wellbutrin, thinking I should stop WB or start taking Xanax, which didn't appeal to me. Then I started reading posts here from people who had the same overall condition (depression plus irritabilty and/or anxiety) and were finding out that they were not unipolar and neeeded some sort of mood stabilizer in order to treat the irritability. I also read that ADs can make such people worse and can excaserbate their actual condition.
Are there always cycles to bi-polar conditions? Are manias always "elevated" moods?
I wonder-
Laurie
poster:Leighwit
thread:106330
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20020510/msgs/106409.html