Posted by Bob on July 16, 2001, at 16:40:18
In reply to The Answer to the SSRI Selectivity Question, posted by SalArmy4me on July 16, 2001, at 2:19:04
> Table 3.8 {From Professor and Chair of UKansas Dr. Preskorn's of Columns on Psychopharmacology}
> http://www.preskorn.com/cgi-bin/sp.pl?words=clomipramine&wt=be&bl=an&d=/books/ssri_s3.html
> explains how fluoxetine and sertraline have a clinically relevant effect on noradrenalin (thus norepinephrine).If the levels of norepinephrine re-uptake that is present with the typical SSRI is considered "clinically significant", then why is it that the typical response to them for many people is the development of a drive-deficient state, to which noradrenergic enhancing drugs are suggested as a solution? Interestingly, the study did not include Venlaflaxine, in comparison to the other SSRIs so that the relative levels of norepinephrine could be seen. I'm assuming it's higher with Effexor?
poster:Bob
thread:70289
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20010714/msgs/70350.html